Here is an additional thing. Where did the exclusivity, relative to the states, of the congress-can actions come from? The exclusivity of those actions relative to other branches of the government can be seen implied because the constitution was dividing power among those branches of government as part of the process for creation of that government. There was a combining entity being created and because of that the constitution was applying its authority on all its powers. Therefore wherever any kind of power gets assigned to only one party it means it is all the power of that kind. But the constitution was not in the process of dividing power between federal and state governments as part of combining them to create a third entity. Therefore the congress-can actions needed to be prohibited to the states because there were no other exclusivity indication for those actions relative to the states.
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