I was trying to just answer starting the first amendment with "Congress shall make no law" as an objection and did not expect to find this kind of additional support to my argument. Notice how the rest of the amendments were expressed at the execution stage. Doesn't that fit also targeting the states because you don't know who is the responsible party there? How about adding to that how in the first amendment when the legislating entity was known it was targeted and the amendment was expressed at the legislation stage?
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