Maybe already noticed, but I was wrong in POST 12 to say that there was no exclusivity between the states and the federal government because the constitution was not dividing power between those entities. It is congress that has no exclusivity with the states. So although congress has exclusivity relative to other branches of the government, giving it the power on something does not tell if that is just locally relative to the other branches of the federal government or within the whole union. In other words, we don't know if congress should be taken as representing just that head or the whole body with it.
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